We have compiled all the stories (and answers) of Reading Plus – Level H so you won’t have to waste your time searching elsewhere. This post is perfect for students who want some guidance and to improve their reading skills at the same time. Get ready to elevate your reading prowess to new heights, unravel the depths of profound texts, and emerge as a true connoisseur of the written word.

Reading Plus test answers – Level H

The Power To Change The World

Question 1: Which statement best expresses the central idea of this selection?
Answer: Women continue to make groundbreaking progress as leaders in politics across the globe.

Question 2: Iceland’s first female prime minister Johanna Sigurdardottir earned the nickname Saint Johanna for
Answer: advocating for workers’ rights and social justice.

Question 3: Based on this excerpt, which two of the following show hurdies Park Geun-Hye conquered to become South Korea’s first female president?
Answer: Her father’s reputation as a brutal ruler;
worst gender inequality of any developed country.

Question 4: In 2019, “Forbes” magazines ranked?
Answer: She was the first woman to be elected
She led the European Union through a global financial crisis.

Question 5: Read this excerpt from the selection. Which statement best describes the information in this excerpt?
Answer: Sirleaf and Gbowee were both involved in working for peace in Liberia.

Question 6: Based on this excerpt, Merkel’s rise to power as a world leader is due in part to her.
Answer: fierce determination.

Question 7: This excerpt about Condoleezza Rice shows that the secretary of state plays a major role in?
Answer: advising on foreign policy.

Question 8: In this excerpt, the author uses the phrase “new millennium” to mean?
Answer: the period of the next 1,000 years.

Question 9: Notably, by the age of 35 Condoleezza Rice was serving as?
Answer: President George H. W. Bush’s expert advisor on Soviet and Eastern Europe Affairs.

Question 10: Order:
Answer 1: as First Lady of the United States…
Answer 2: was elected and re-elected to the U.S. Senate;
Answer 3: announced her candidacy for President of the United States;
Answer 4: served as Secretary of State under President Barack Obama.

A Furry Parade

Question 1: This selection is mainly about the?
Answer: the beneficial bond between animals and people.

Question 2: Choose the excerpt that shows pet visits are beneficial to the owners as well.
Answer: They too get real satisfaction from enabling others to enjoy the love

Question 3: What does it mean when the author says, “By now…”?
Answer: The dogs do the same thing during each weekly visit.

Question 4: Order:
Answer 1: Dogs complete basic training…;
Answer 2: Dogs participate in more specialized training sessions;
Answer 3: Dogs pass tests that show they…;
Answer 4: Dogs start volunteering in nursing homes or hospitals.

Question 5: Which sense does the author highlight in…?
Answer: touch

Question 6: Why does the author say a therapy animal has an advantage over a human caretaker?
Answer: It can sense a dangerous medical condition before it happens.

Question 7: Which two ways are service animals different from therapy animals?
Answer 1: Service animals can perform helpful tasks in the home.
Answer 2: Service animals undergo in-depth specialized training

Question 8: A good therapy dog must be?
Answer: cool, calm, and collected.

Question 9: Based on this selection, having a child read to a dog is a beneficial practice because it improves this reader.
Answer: composure and confidence.

The First Public Park

Question 1: This selection mainly?
Answer: recounts the history and people involved in the design and construction of New York’s Central Park.

Question 2: Highlight the sentence that best explains why Frederick Olmstead could not join the Navy during the Civil War.
Answer: He toyed with the idea of joining the navy, but a serious accident the year before, when he was thrown from a carriage, had left him with a limp.

Question 3: In the nearly 20 years that Frederick Olmstead worked on the Central Park project, which two job titles did he hold?
Answer: architect advisor; president of the Department of Public Parks.

Question 4: Read this excerpt. The details in this excerpt are intended to convey to the reader that?
Answer: the project was a massive undertaking.

Question 5: Read this excerpt from the selection, which is the quotation from the beginning. Why does the author begin this way?
Answer: to help the reader understand the significance of Central Park to the general public

Question 6: What was the effect of the Central Park project on Frederick Olmstead?
Answer: He suffered from exhaustion and injuries.

Question 7: Read this excerpt from the selection and one from another source. What sort of picture do they provide about the work of the Sanitary Commission?
Answer: As hard as they tried, the Sanitary Commission could not save everyone from disease.

Question 8: In what way were the park pathways proposed in the Greensward plan considered innovative?
Answer: The main paths were designed to run below the park’s surface to avoid disrupting the view.

Question 9: What was Frederick Olmstead’s goal in excluding elaborate roads and architecture from the park?
Answer: to design a park for the enjoyment of all people, but just to show

Question 10: This is an image of Central Park today. From this image, you can tell that Central Park?
Answer: remains a major recreation center for the City of New York.

The Boston Tea Party

Question 1: What is the central idea of this selection?
Answer: the events and repercussions of the Boston Tea Party.

Question 2: Choose the sentence in this excerpt that provides evidence that the withdrawal of the Stamp Act had additional consequences.
Answer: But the repeal did not mean complete victory for the colonies: the same day, Parliament passed the Declaratory Act, which asserted Parliament’s right to tax the colonies.

Question 3: What was the role of the French government in the American Revolutionary War?
Answer: France sided with the Americans.

Question 4: As America struggled to shape itself as a new country, what was the immediate effect on the rest of the world?
Answer: It inspired Revolution in other parts of the world.

Question 5: What did the Stamp Act do?
Answer: it required colonists to buy a royal stamp to place on all printed goods.

Question 6: At first, the colonies did not pay taxes and were allowed to govern themselves. What happened to cause the tax policy to change?
Answer: The wars between the French and English were expensive, and the British wanted the colonists to help pay the debt.

Question 7: Order
Answer 1: People rushed out of the meetinghouse.
Answer 2: The disguised men boarded the ships.
Answer 3: They dumped the tea overboard.
Answer 4: John Adams predicted it would have lasting consequences.

Question 8: The British government saw the Boston Tea Party as an act of treason. What is treason?
Answer: the crime of betraying one’s country by attempting to kill the sovereign or overthrow the government.

Question 9: What were the demands of the 21st Century Tea Party?
Answer: lower taxes, limits on the power of the federal government, and measures to slow government spending

Question 10: What was the tax situation in the British colonies in North America when the colonies were first settled?
Answer: The colonists did not pay taxes to Britain and were allowed to govern themselves. Each colony had its own government, laws, and even money.

Farming in Water

Question 1: This selection is mainly about?
Answer: preserving our natural resources by implementing new farming methods.

Question 2: The author believes that support for preserving our natural resources could be increased by?
Answer: Involving youth in the food-growing process.

Question 3: Which two phrases in this excerpt describe the types of natural resources used in traditional farming methods?
Answer: flat fields; running water.

Question 4: The prefix of the word “hydroponics” gives readers a clue to its meaning because hydro refers to?
Answer: water.

Question 5: In an aquaponic system, plants and fish provide the best environment for each other. The fish act as fertilizers and the plants act as?
Answer: water filters.

Question 6: What is the most important benefit to farmers who use an aquaponic system?
Answer: They can grow two food products at the same time.

Question 7: Choose the sentence in this excerpt that indicates why traditional farming uses more water than hydroponic farming.
Answer: When a food producer irritates crops grown in the soil, 20-50 percent of that water is lost through runoff and evaporation.

Question 8: These two excerpts demonstrate which of the following aspects of hydroponics?
Answer: its flexibility

Question 9: Which of the following is considered by some to be a disadvantage of goods grown in a hydroponic system?
Answer: decrease in taste and nutrients

Question 10: In a hydroponic system, which of the following is the major job of the part of the plant shown in this image?
Answer: absorb nutrients

Tiny Houses, Big Backyards

Question 1: This selection is mainly about?
Answer: families who live in RVs full-time.

Question 2: In this selection, the author compares full-time RVing to?
Answer: being on a constant field trip.

Question 3: According to the selection, RVs are self-sufficient. Which two reasons explain what this means?
Answer: They carry their own water.
They supply their own electricity

Question 4: Read this excerpt. Which of the following statements best summarizes the theme of this selection?
Answer: Home is where your family is.

Question 5: Which of the following statements explains the reasoning behind why the Whites decided to be full-timers?
Answer: They wanted to be a family that works, learns, and plays together.

Question 6: In which two ways has technology helped full-timers?
Answer: Credit cards make it easier to pay for things.
Cell phones enable people to stay in touch.

Question 7: Some RVers decide to eliminate possessions when moving into the RV. They choose what to keep by.
Answer: checking how useful the things are compared to how much space, water, and power they use.

Question 8: Choose the sentence in this excerpt that supports the claim that trailers assisted soldiers who had fought for the United States.
Answer: By the end of World War II, trailers built quickly and inexpensively in factories were serving as houses for multitudes of returning veterans.

Question 9: Read the excerpt. The author’s purpose for beginning the selection this way is to?
Answer: grab the reader’s attention.

Question 10: The word “perennially” in this sentence from the selection could be replaced with the word?
Answer: consistently.

Deja Vu

Question 1: This selection is mainly about?
Answer: the research that has been done in an attempt to explain deja vu.

Question 2: Deja vu is very hard to study. Which of the following sentences from the text supports this claim?
Answer: Surveys asking people about their deja vu experiences are often flawed.

Question 3: Which two of the following does Jung consider archetypes?
Answer: the trickster
Answer 2: the hero

Question 4: Socrates believed deja vu happened when people?
Answer: remembered memories from their past lives.

Question 5: This selection can best be described as?
Answer: informational nonfiction because it gives facts and details about a specific topic.

Question 6: According to Flaherty-Craig and Brown, young people have more deja vu experiences because?
Answer: the brain is still developing during adolescence.

Question 7: Read this excerpt. Choose the sentence that confirms why deja vu can give someone a creepy feeling.
Answer: The contrast between what you think you know (that you’ve never seen this person before) and what you feel (the sense of familiarity) seems very strange.

Question 8: According to the selection, one way to learn more about how healthy brains work is to?
Answer: study unhealthy brains.

Question 9: Carl Jung thought that deja vu happened when a person tapped into it.
Answer: the collective unconscious.

The Union And The Confederacy (South Versus North)

Question 1: This selection is mostly about?
Answer: key events that shaped and ended the Civil War.

Question 2: According to the selection, many people feel the turning point of the Civil War was the?
Answer: Emancipation Proclamation.

Question 3: Joseph Hooker, Thomas Jackson, and Ulysses S. Grant?
Answer: were all generals.

Question 4: Choose the one sentence from the excerpt that confirms why the Union army kept trying to take Chattanooga.?
Answer: The Union wanted to use the city as a base to cut the Confederacy in two, by driving the rebel army to the sea.

Question 5: Mood is the feeling an author creates with words. Read this excerpt. The mood of this excerpt can best be described as?
Answer: tense.

Question 6: This selection can best be described as informational nonfiction because it?
Answer: gives facts and details about a specific topic.

Question 7: By the end of 1863, the outlook for the Confederacy looked grim. Which two events led to this outlook?
Answer 1: Southern ports were blockaded by the Union.
Answer 2: England and France decided to stay out of the war.

Question 8: The Emancipation Proclamation would lead to?
Answer: enslavement ending in the South.

Question 9: Read this excerpt. Choose one sentence that provides a possible reason the Confederate army choose Gettysburg as their next battleground.
Answer: Some historians say the Confederate soldiers had learned of a stockpile of shoes in the town, which the soldiers badly needed.

Question 10: Read these excerpts. During the spring of 1863, the North and the South were both?
Answer: struggling.

Rome’s Ancient Amphitheater (The Colosseum)

Question 1: What is the main idea of this selection?
Answer: The Colosseum is an ancient wonder that continues to attract people today.

Question 2: The Colosseum’s original name was “Amphitheatrum Flavium.” Which two theories of selection were given to explain why it became known as the Colosseum?
Answer: It was a colossal building in size and scope.
It was built next to a huge statue, “The Colossus of Nero,” named for a Roman Emperor.

Question 3: Read this excerpt. The word “games” is in quotation marks to suggest the use of?
Answer: irony, as the games were real battles.

Question 4: In what major way was the Colosseum different from most other Roman amphitheaters?
Answer: Instead of being built in a natural hollow or hillside, Colosseum was a freestanding structure.

Question 5: Choose the sentence that best explains why Ancient Roman buildings were made to endure today.
Answer: These crystals gave the concrete great strength, which is why many Ancient Roman buildings including the Colosseum, are standing today.

Question 6: What does the object shown in this image have to do with the selection?
Answer: Some gladiators used a trident when fighting in the Colosseum.

Question 7: What caused the end of the gladiatorial games in 404 BCE?
Answer: Emperor Honorius ended the games when he issued a ban on brutal forms of entertainment.

Question 8: Based on this excerpt, the construction of the Colosseum can best be summarized as?
Answer: precise.

Question 9: Read this excerpt. The design and operation of the Valerium in the Colosseum is compared to the?
Answer: masts and sails on a ship.

Question 10: Based on the selection, how did the games at the Colosseum reflect social rules at that time?
Answer: People were seated based on their rank in society.

The Making Of A Mouse

Question 1: This text focuses on Walt Disney’s early life and success. Which line from the text best states Disney’s primary goal during this part of his life?
Answer: “All he could say, over and over, was that he’d never work for anyone again as long as he lived; he’d be his own boss.”

Question 2: Choose the sentence in this paragraph.
Answer: Disney was fascinated by animation.

Question 3: Put these events from Disney’s early life in order from first to last.
Answer 1: He sold newspapers, candy, and soda…
Answer 2: He began taking evening classes at the Chicago…
Answer 3: He became a volunteer for the International Red Cross…
Answer 4: He got a job at Pesmen-Rubin Studios…

Question 4: Choose a paragraph that best explains why Disney felt so drawn.
Answer: animation and soon realized that the movement…

Question 5: The Talking Mickey in “Steamboat Willie” was an instant success when it opened in 1928. However, it might not have been successful if?
Answer: Cinephone’s Pat Powers and distributor Harry Reichenbach hadn’t taken a chance on Disney.

Question 6: Disney asked Ub Iwerks to create Mickey Mouse in complete secrecy. Which two reasons explain why?
Answer 1: Disney refused to share his new characters with Mintz, whom Disney believed had betrayed him.
Answer 2: Disney did not want any animators who were leaving Walt Disney Production to benefit from his creation.

Question 7: Disney’s time working at Pesmen-Rubin studios was brief, but it did have one beneficial result. What was it?
Answer: It allowed Disney to meet and form a friendship with Ub Iwerks, with whom he would start a business.

Question 8: Disney made “Laugh-O-Grams,” which were?
Answer: short cartoons shown at movie theaters.

Question 9: The author included this information in the text?
Answer: to highlight the limitations Disney faced when making his films.

Question 10: How did the illustrated character shown in this image affect Disney’s early career?
Answer: “Oswald the Lucky Rabbit” was very successful but ultimately led to Disney’s split from Universal Pictures.

Question 11: How do these two excerpts from the text work together?
Answer: Both highlight the loyalty between Disney and Iwerks.

The Science Of Sweet

Question 1: This selection is mainly about the sugar industry and the?
Answer: different sweeteners that are produced and consumed.

Question 2: Read this excerpt from the text and one from another source. How do these excerpts connect?
Answer: Excerpt 2 provides evidence to support a claim made in Excerpt 1.

Question 3: In this excerpt, the author states that names for different forms of sugar often end in “ose”. The author is telling you that?
Answer: a suffix is used to form the names of sugars.

Question 4: Sugarcane and beets are used to produce. What are the two differences between these sources of sugar?
Answer: Beets grow in seasons, while sugarcane is harvested year-round.
Turning sugarcane into sugar requires much more water than the sugar beet process.

Question 5: The author states that “most people underestimate how much sugar they consume.” This is most likely because?
Answer: people may not realize how many different foods contain added sugar.

Question 6: Read this excerpt from the text and one from another source. Do these excerpts most strongly suggest that?
Answer: one can of sugar-sweetened soda contains almost all the added sugar a person should consume in one day.

Question 7: Read this excerpt. What is the purpose of the second sentence in this paragraph?
Answer: It signals to the reader that a contrasting thought or idea is coming next.

Question 8: Choose one sentence in this excerpt that supports the idea that people may not always realize they are consuming added sugar.
Answer: Sugar is often added to tomato products such as spaghetti sauce because sugar reduces the acidity of the tomatoes.

Question 9: Like spinach greens, the leafy greens of beet plants are?
Answer: edible by humans.

Question 10: The author states that sugar beets have advantages over sugarcane. Based on the text, the main advantage is that sugar beets?
Answer: can grow in more places.

Let’s Tour the Temple

Question 1: This selection is mainly about?
Answer: what a person would see on a visit to the Great Temple of Abu Simbel.

Question 2: What do Egyptologists refer to as?
Answer: the period when Ramesses ruled as the New Kingdom

Question 3: The temple was built so that twice a year the first rays of the rising sun would shine directly into the sanctuary. Which detail from the text most likely explains this choice?
Answer: The two days may have been Ramesses’ birthday and the day he was crowned.

Question 4: This selection explains facts about the Great Temple of Abu Simbel. This text can be best described as?
Answer: informational nonfiction.

Question 5: Which two of the following explain the importance of the Great Temple of Abu Simbel to the Ramesses?
Answer 1: It promoted Egyptian religious beliefs.
Answer 2: It was a testament to the country’s superiority.

Question 6: Read this excerpt. Does the author include this excerpt to assist the reader?
Answer: visualizing the current exterior of the Great Temple.

Question 7: Look at this image of statues to the left of the entrance of the temple. Do they appear this way due to?
Answer: an earthquake in ancient times.

Question 8: Ptah, Re-Horakhty, and Amun were all?
Answer: gods.

Question 9: Based on this part of the text about the Great Temple, the statues with a double crown represent?
Answer: northern Egypt.

Question 10: Read this excerpt. Which sentence provides the best summary of this excerpt?
Answer: The Hittites proved to be a challenge for Ramesses.

Sustainable Irrigation

Question 1: This selection is mainly about?
Answer: actions that can be taken to lessen the water shortage.

Question 2: Overirrigation can cause which two problems?
Answer: damages plants; attracts pests

Question 3: What action does the USDA believe could save the United States $200 million per year in fuel costs?
Answer: increasing irrigation efficiency

Question 4: Read these excerpts from the text. Gravity systems are different than sprinkler irrigation systems because of gravity systems.
Answer: do not use pumps.

Question 5: Sprinkler irrigation pumps imitate?
Answer: rainfall.

Question 6: Which two problems trouble sustainable farmers?
Answer: water availability; water quality

Question 7: Read this excerpt from the text. What is the author’s purpose in writing this paragraph?
Answer: to inform the reader

Question 8: This selection is best described as?
Answer: an informational nonfiction article.

Question 9: Choose one sentence that provides a reason why the governor of California announced an executive order mandating water use reduction.
Answer: In 2015, California was in its fourth year of record drought, which was the worst since 1895.

Question 10: Choose the one sentence in this excerpt that explains one way a farmer can tell if it is time to start irrigating the ground.
Answer: A vacuum gauge at the top measures when the soil is dry enough for the farmer to start irrigation.

Inside a Cyclone

Question 1: The selection is mainly about tornadoes and?
Answer: how they are being studied to learn more about their formation and movement.

Question 2: Read these two excerpts. What do they indicate?
Answer: The tornado happened quickly but Caleb thought it lasted a long time.

Question 3: According to this selection, which two of the following are the first signs that a tornado is starting to form?
Answer: a whirlwind of dust on the ground;
funnel reaching down from a supercell.

Question 4: While Caleb and his family were watching the play, what was the first thing that alerted him to an approaching tornado?
Answer: The air felt odd to him.

Question 5: Put the ingredients that form a tornado in the order in which they occur, starting with the first.
Answer: moisture; temperature difference; lift; wind shear;

Question 6: Which of the following is true about what you should do if a twister is coming your way?
Answer: Lie face down in a ditch or close to the ground.

Question 7: In this excerpt, why does the author ask these two questions?
Answer: to contrast the calm and violence of nature.

Question 8: Based on what you have read, which of the following people will be most helpful in making tornadoes easier to predict in the future?
Answer: computer programmers.

Question 9: Which of the following sentences best describes Caleb’s feelings about future tornadoes?
Answer: Caleb feels afraid but also prepared.

Question 10: This image could be used to describe?
Answer: a mesocyclone.

An Eyewitness to the Titanic Disaster

Question 1: This selection is mainly?
Answer: an unbiased account of an avoidable manmade disaster.

Question 2: Based on this excerpt from the selection, which is true about the crewman?
Answer: He thought Beesley was absurd for wanting to go outside in the cold.

Question 3: Based on what you have read, which is correct?
Answer: The crew of the Titanic had seen the iceberg before striking it.

Question 4: Choose the sentence in this excerpt that contains the figure of speech called a simile.
Answer: The Titanic’s membrane of outer plates was less than an inch thick and must have been cut through as a knife cuts paper.

Question 5: What subtle change did Beesley perceive while in his stateroom shortly after 11 p.m.?
Answer: An increased vibration from the ship’s engines.

Question 6: Place these events in the sinking of the Titanic in order, starting with the earliest.
Answer 1: An iceberg pierces the body of the Titanic.
Answer 2: The Titanic slowed to a stop in the middle of the sea.
Answer 3: The Titanic begins to tilt downward, toward the rear of the
Answer 4: The Titanic’s crew orders passengers to put on their

Question 7: Which of the following most clearly demonstrated to passengers that situation was dire?
Answer: the launching of rockets to attract help

Question 8: According to Beesley, who on the ship exhibited the highest level of bravery on the night of the disaster, and what was the act of bravery?
Answer: The ship’s musicians, who continued to play their instruments even as the ship sank into the sea.

Question 9: What was the primary reason the death toll was so high?
Answer 1: The ocean was unbearably cold.
Answer 2: The ship had fat too few lifeboats.

Question 10: Read these excerpts. The first is from a recent report about the Titanic disaster, and the second is from Beesley’s account. What conclusion can be drawn from these?
Answer: The first- and second-class passengers were more likely to have survived than the third-class passengers

Working for the FBI

Question 1: This selection is mainly about?
Answer: achieving a career goal.

Question 2: How are FBI agents different from state police officers?
Answer: FBI agents investigate crimes in every state.

Question 3: Which of the following shows the theme of persistence?
Answer: Her determination to secure a job at the FBI never wavered.

Question 4: What does the word “field” mean in the title of a field agent?
Answer: A place within the community

Question 5: The author admires Tonya for her ability to make smart choices. Which two actions support the author’s opinion?
Answer 1: Tonya majored in Mandarin and Arabic, which are hugely valued by the FBI.
Answer 2: Tonya got a job at the United Nations as an entry-level translator.

Question 6: Put in order:
Answer: a battery of written tests, personal interviews, physical Fitness Tests, drug and background checks.

Question 7: Choose the sentence in this excerpt that shows Tonya’s competence and self-assurance.
Answer: Because of her training, she realized that she was ready for the exact moment.

Question 8: Did Tonya get to this headquarters in New York City after graduating from college?
Answer: entry-level translator

Question 9: What was the most important factor in Tonya’s success as a counterterrorism expert?
Answer: her knowledge of foreign languages

Question 10: While planning for a career in the FBI, Tonya showed good judgment in how she conducted herself. Which of Tonya’s actions best supports this statement?
Answer: She avoided drug use without revealing her future plans.

The Ghost on the Moor

Question 1: Lorelai states that her mother is compassionate. Which sentence from the text supports this claim?
Answer: This time she would be working on flood relief and a cholera outbreak outside Rio de Janeiro.

Question 2: Read this excerpt. The author included this excerpt to help the reader.
Answer: visualize how the mansion looked.

Question 3: In this excerpt, the word “bangles” means a type of?
Answer: jewelry.

Question 4: Once Lorelai arrived at the train station she realized?
Answer: her cousin was still just as boring as she remembered.

Question 5: While talking to Tom, Lorelai’s “ears pricked up with heightened excitement.” Why?
Answer: She heard that ruins could be found on the moor.

Question 6: According to the selection, which two of the following was Lorelai hoping to find on the moor?
Answer: caves; valleys

Question 7: Read this excerpt. From this excerpt, you can tell that Tom is?
Answer: annoyed by Lorelai.

Question 8: Choose the one sentence from this excerpt that shows that Lorelai feels she is very different from Tom.
Answer: How was I even related to this kid?

Question 9: This selection is mainly about how Lorelai?
Answer: her cousin and Tom both see a ghost.

Question 10: In this excerpt, another word for a “quagmire” would be?
Answer: swamp

Question 11: When Tom and Lorelai come to the first ruins, which two things does Tom think it might be?
Answer: a medieval church; an old house.

Question 12: Based on what you read in Part 2 of this story, Part 2 is best described as a work of?
Answer: fiction.

Question 13: Read this excerpt. Why did Tom most likely ask if Lorelai could see her too?
Answer: He believed he was the only one that could see the ghost.

Question 14: Which sentence from the story explains why Lorelai was awakened during the night?
Answer: The floorboards creaked as the steps grew nearer and stopped outside my room.

Question 15: After Lorelai saw the little girl by the tree in the middle of the night, which two questions did she ask herself?
Answer: Was she lost?
What was she doing there?

Question 16: At the end of Part 2, Lorelai hoped the ghost would appear again, so Lorelai could?
Answer: try to communicate with her.

Question 17: Read this excerpt from the story. Why did Lorelai feel uneasy?
Answer: She realized what she had heard the night before could not have been Uncle Henry.

Question 18: Read these two excerpts. Tom and Lorelai’s experiences with the ghost are different because Tom had?
Answer: never heard the little girl speak.

Environmental Protests

Question 1: The central idea of this selection is?
Answer: the history of the environmental movement in America.

Question 2: Which event happened due to the publication of Rachel Carspn’s book “Silent Spring”?
Answer: President John F. Kennedy asked his Science Advisory Committee to investigate Carson’s claims.

Question 3: Ralph Nader and Winona LaDuke?
Answer: ran for President and Vice President as Green Party candidates.

Question 4: Why are bees important to the environment?
Answer: Bees help the plants that provide food for people and many animals to reproduce.

Question 5: What Greenpeace members can best be described as?
Answer: passionate.

Question 6: Which incident made Americans very concerned about nuclear energy?
Answer: A Pennsylvania nuclear plant leaked radioactive gas that could make people and animals sick.

Question 7: What does the acronym NIMBY mean?
Answer: Not In My Back Yard

Question 8: What is Leopold’s idea of “land ethic”?
Answer: People should not view nature as something to overcome or defeat. They should care about the land.

Question 9: Read this excerpt. Which two sentences are opinions?
Answer: He believed forests should be used thoughtfully in a way that protected nature.
He thought forests should be used to benefit people.

Question 10: Choose the sentence in this excerpt that provides evidence supporting the idea that sometimes the government creates laws that benefit businesses more than nature.
Answer: These include allowing oil companies to dig pipelines and possibly contaminate drinking water, and letting coal companies dump waste in streams.

Building A Better Tomb

Question 1: What is the main idea of this selection?
Answer: There are many theories about the Egyptian pyramids but no one knows for certain how they were built.

Question 2: Which two assumptions about the Egyptian pyramids does the author challenge?
Answer: Massive numbers of foreign slaves were needed to build the pyramids.
Workers who built the pyramids were mistreated and fed meager rations.

Question 3: Why did the pyramid for King Sneferu become known as the Bent Pyramid?
Answer: Its slope angle was modified when half finished.

Question 4: From this map, you can tell that most of the Egyptian pyramids were?
Answer: built along the banks of the Nile River.

Question 5: Based on this excerpt, the major mystery of the pyramids in Egypt is?
Answer: how they were constructed without modern tools.

Question 6: Order:
Answer 1: Engineers leveled most of the rock surface at the building site.
Answer 2: A mound of bedrock was set aside to stabilize the core of the…
Answer 3: Dimensions of the pyramid were marked in the shape of a square.
Answer 4: Blocks of quarried stone were loaded onto barges and floated…
Answer 5: In this excerpt, the author uses a tone of amazement.

Question 7: The first structure to surpass the height of the Great Pyramid of King Khufu was the?
Answer: Eiffel Tower.

Question 8: Choose the sentence in this excerpt that explains why King Djoser’s architect used it.
Answer: Stone, so much stronger than mud bricks, would better protect the king’s mummified body and belongings, which were needed for his afterlife.

Question 9: Scientists have learned much about the builders of the pyramids.
Answer: uncovered graves and artifacts.

News in a Flash

Question 1: What is the main idea of this selection?
Answer: The telegraph and the telephone revolutionized global communications.

Question 2: A person could save money when sending a telegram by?
Answer: Use the word “stop” instead of a period at the end of the sentence.

Question 3: Before the 1800s, people stayed in touch with one another mainly by?
Answer: exchanging letters.

Question 4: The author writes that 40 years after being invented, telephones became more common in people’s homes than?
Answer: bathtubs.

Question 5: What does the selection say about the person in this image?
Answer: He was the first U.S. president to use a telephone.

Question 6: The author describes the Zimmermann Telegram as “one of the most infamous telegrams” because of it.
Answer: caused the United States to join World War I.

Question 7: Which sentence best summarizes this ending excerpt from the selection?
Answer: Over the years, telephones have gone from a luxury to an everyday necessity.

Question 8: Order
Answer 1: Bells has an idea for a “harmonic telegraph.”
Answer 2: Bell and Watson teamed up to improve the telegraph.
Answer 3: Bell and Watson string the world’s first telegraph wire.
Answer 4: Bell files a patent for “Improvements in Technology.”

Question 9: Read this excerpt. If Bell’s patent on the telephone did not run out in 1893, you could predict that?
Answer: other independent telephone companies would never have been created.

Question 9: According to the selection, when is the only time electromagnets magnetize?
Answer: when a current flows through its wire.

Is It Skill or Luck?

Question 1: This selection is mainly about?
Answer: How luck can give a person

Question 2: What does the author do to make it?
Answer: He says it was told to him by an honest

Question 3: In this excerpt what does the banquet guest mean?
Answer: The guest felt inspired

Question 4: What motivated the clergyman to help?
Answer: sympathy

Question 5: This excerpt explains how?
Answer: I could just barely have stood/I thought my hair

Question 6: The clergyman felt guilty?
Answer: Do something to show

Question 7: What does this excerpt tell you?
Answer: People mistook

Question 8: At the end of the selection?
Answer: Why was the clergyman the only one to know

Question 9: In this excerpt, the narrator’s tone?
Answer: frustrated

Question 10: Based on what you read, this selection?
Answer: uses sarcasm and ridicule.

Cuddle Therapy or Four-footed Visitors

Question 1: The selection is mainly?
Answer: Beneficial bonds between.

Question 2: How can you tell the nursing home?
Answer: They have positioned themselves.

Question 3: What does it mean when the author says?
Answer: The dogs do the same thing.

Question 4: Choose the sentence in this excerpt.
Answer: They too get great satisfaction.

Question 5: A good therapy dog must be?
Answer: Cool, calm, and collected.

Question 6: Based on this selection, how do most?
Answer: Uplifted.

Question 7: Why does the author say a therapy animal
Answer: It can sense danger.

Question 8: What sense does the author?
Answer: Touch.

Question 9: Based on this selection, having a child?
Answer: Composure and confidence.

Question 10: In which two ways are you?
Answer: Service animals can perform.
Service animals undergo.

The Rise of Social Supermarkets

Question 1: Which quote from the text best states the central idea of this selection?
Answer: “Our vision isn’t to sell cheap food. It’s to build strong individuals and confident communities around food.”

Question 2: Community Shop sets up only in areas that have?
Answer: high levels of poverty.

Question 3: A metaphor is a comparison that describes one thing as if it was.
Answer: ” In reality, the shop is the gateway.” Stott says.

Question 4: Read this excerpt. According to Gary Stott, being a member of a social supermarket is meant to be?
Answer: a temporary situation.

Question 5: Based on what you have read, this selection can best be described as an?
Answer: informational text.

Question 6: In this excerpt, Gary Stott states, “Food poverty creates the idea that there’s just one thing that needs fixing.” Based on the text, what is the “one thing”?
Answer: getting food to people

Question 7: Social supermarkets are not the same as food banks. One difference is that?
Answer: people at social supermarkets pay for their groceries – they just pay less.

Question 8: These two excerpts suggest that, in addition to providing food and goods, social supermarkets also provide
Answer: emotional support.

Question 9: The goods sold at social supermarkets are?
Answer: leftover foods from major retail outlets.

Question 10: Besides food, what two other services do social supermarkets such as Community Shop and Local Pantry offer their members?
Answer: Mentoring; skills training

Germs in Sports and Schools

Question 1: This selection is mainly about?
Answer: Making an effort to stay healthy.

Question 2: What was acceptance?
Answer: Physical stature.

Question 3: MRSA is a serious infection because?
Answer: Only special.

Question 4: Choose two sentences.
Answer: After the MRSA scare, since germs.

Question 5: In this selection?
Answer: In this selection
They are frequently

Question 6: Put these steps…
Answer: Students were educated
hand sanitizers

Question 7: Students were made aware?
Answer: Backpacks.

Question 8: According to this selection?
Answer: Cafeteria
Question 9: What evidence?
Answer: The number of student sick days.

Question 10: Why does the author?
Answer: To inject a humorous.

Question 11: MRSA is a serious infection because?
Answer: only special antibiotics are capable of treating it.

Crime Fighter

Question 1: The selection was mainly?
Answer: Achieving a career goal.

Question 2: What first aroused Tonya’s interest?
Answer: A crime-solving TV character.

Question 3: How are the FBI agents?
Answer: FBI agents investigate crime.

Question 4: The author admires Tonya for her ability.
Answer: Tonya majored in Mandarin and Arabic…
Tonya got a job at the United Nations…

Question 5: Put the initial four phases of becoming?
Answer 1: a battery of written tests
Answer 2: personal interview
Answer 3: Physical Fitness test
Answer 4: drug and background checks

Question 6: What job did Tonya get?
Answer: Entry-experienced translator.

Question 7: Which of the following shows the theme?
Answer: Her determination to secure a.

Question 8: What part does the polygraph It?
Answer: confirms Tonya was not lying.

Question 9: What was the most important factor?
Answer: Her knowledge of foreign languages.

Fire and Ice

Question 1: This selection is mainly about?
Answer: the history of traditional and synthetic diamonds.

Question 2: The author states that diamond was named “Science” magazine’s “Molecule of the Year” in 1990. Which two characteristics of diamond support this choice?
Answer 1: Diamond does not break down in the presence of any known chemical;
Answer 2: Diamond conducts sound and heat better than any other substance.

Question 3: Please read these excerpts from the text. What does Excerpt 2 help explain about Excerpt 1?
Answer: the meaning of the term “kimberlite volcanic pipes”

Question 4: Based on this excerpt, which two factors must be present for chemical vapor deposition to be successful?
Answer: The conditions during cooling are controlled.

Question 5: The heat in the vacuum forms a gas of?
Answer: single atoms.

Question 6: Diamonds are typically clear. However, some diamonds, such as the Hope Diamond, come in a “rainbow of colors.” Why?
Answer: Other elements contaminate the carbon in the diamond.

Question 7: The Hope Diamond is known for its large size. But it is one of the world’s most famous jewels because of?
Answer: it’s rare royal-blue color.

Question 8: In this excerpt, the author uses parentheses to?
Answer: provide an explanation of a scientific concept.

Question 9: In chemist Antoine-Lauren Lavoisier’s experiment, what caused the diamond to disappear?
Answer : heat

Question 10: Scientist Bob Wentorf’s use of crunchy peanut butter to create a diamond reveals that he is?
Answer: humorous.

Question 11: In this excerpt, what does the author mean in the last sentence by “gives a diamond its fire”?
Answer: When light reflects off the facets of the diamond, it causes a glow of different colors.

The Spray-Can Painter

Question 1: This selection is mainly about Bansky and?
Answer: The controversy he generated with

Question 2: Choose the one sentence in this excerpt that best supports the author’s claim that Bansky is a famous and popular graffiti artist.
Answer: If not.

Question 3: It is ironic that?
Answer: Has attracted more.

Question 4: By attempting to conceal?
Answer: Aimed to focus.

Question 5: According to this excerpt, what are two important components of Repetitive?
Answer: Comments.

Question 6: Why has the subject of?
Answer: The rat image was first used.

Question 7: Bansky’s main purpose for using stencils?
Answer: To speed up the process

Question 8: Bansky’s graffiti during the London Olympics?
Answer: Political.

Question 9: What did some people mean when they?
Answer: He abandoned his principles.

Question 10: Based on this excerpt, how did Bansky counteract?
Answer: He used humor to mock himself.

Anything Is Possible

Question 1: This story is mainly about determination.
Answer: needed to start a new life in another country.

Question 2: Why did some people in other countries think the streets in America were paved with gold?
Answer: People in America were so rich that gold was used to make ordinary things.

Question 3: Sheyna’s papa could be described as?
Answer: broadminded.

Question 4: What provoked Mama’s decision to send Sheyna to America?
Answer: persecution of the Jews

Question 5: Throughout the story, Sheyna shows that she is?
Answer: goal-oriented and determined.

Question 6: The factor that made Sheyna’s voyage most bearable probably was?
Answer: meeting a caring co-passenger.

Question 7: How does the author highlight the poor conditions experienced by third-class passengers during their voyage?
Answer: by contrasting them with the privileges of first-class passengers

Question 8: Why did the doctors check the incoming ship for cholera and typhus?
Answer: to guard against passengers spreading these diseases in America

Question 9: You can tell from this excerpt that gaining entrance to the United States?
Answer: was a long and thorough process.

The Power Of Sound

Question 1: This selection is mainly about?
Answer: sound and how it can take a toll on our ears.

Question 2: Place these events in order to demonstrate the steps in how sound travels.
Answer 1: You kick a stone and it starts to roll.
Answer 2: As the stone starts to move, it stirs up air molecules around it.
Answer 3: The first air molecules to move to shake up other air molecules around them.
Answer 4: In turn, those air molecules set more air molecules in motion.

Question 3: The author states that noise is causing hearing loss much earlier in life than 30 years ago. Choose the two sentences that best support this claim.
Answer: Of the 28 million Americans who have some degree of hearing loss
And the evidence is mounting that among young Americans, hearing sensitivity

Question 4: Read these two excerpts. Which one of these sounds is closest to the high end of what humans can hear?
Answer: The screech of a bat.

Question 5: A jackhammer is a power tool used to break apart rock or concrete. Based on this excerpt, how is rock music similar to a jackhammer?
Answer: They are both louder than an airplane flying over.

Question 6: Which two of the following describe sound frequency and intensity?
Answer: The height of an object making noise; The level of loudness.

Question 7: Which two of the following health issues can result from dangerous sound levels?
Answer: Sleep loss; High blood pressure.

Question 8: Based on these two excerpts, which two of the following sounds can cause immediate hearing damage?
Answer: Jet taking off; Subway trains roaring by.

Question 9: What is the main point the author is making in this excerpt?
Answer: Young people need to educate themselves on the dangers of loud music and the risk of hearing loss.

Question 10: Based on the information in this text, place these sounds in order from most to least loud.
Answer: Rock music; ambulance sirens; horns honking; people talking.

Mango Sreet

Question 1: This story is mainly about Sandra Cisneros and?
Answer: how she found her inner power and achieved success.

Question 2: What type of people is Cisneros describing in the phrase, “the others who lay their necks on the threshold waiting for the ball and chain”?
Answer: submissive

Question 3: Esperanza and Cisneros are alike in that they both?
Answer: want to be in control of their own lives.

Question 4: Cisneros is sympathetic to poor Mexican immigrants because?
Answer: she experienced the same problems of adjusting to a new culture.

Question 5: which of the following probably helped Cisneros to overcome her low self-esteem?
Answer: her mother’s support in helping her follow her dreams.

Question 6: How did Cisneros’ attitude as a writer change after college?
Answer: She embraced the uniqueness of her perspective on everyday life.

Question 7: Which statement affirms Cisneros’ financial success as a writer?
Answer: One of the largest publishing companies offered her a contract.

Question 8: Cisneros said, “I needed a room of my own” because she wanted?
Answer: to discover her own strengths.

Question 9: What does the color of this house have to do with the statement in the story that although Cisneros lives alone, “her life is not boring”?
Answer: She created controversy in San Antonio by painting her house a bright purple.

Question 10: In Cisneros’ novel “Caramelo,” Lala’s woven striped shawl is a metaphor for?
Answer: her family’s history.

Going For Gold

Question 1: This selection mainly focuses on the?
Answer: memorable moments in Olympic figure skating.

Question 2: Based on what you have read, you can infer that skating at the 1968 Olympics would have been an emotional event for Peggy Fleming. Why?
Answer: Just seven years earlier, the entire U.S. figure skating team had been killed in a plane crash.

Question 3: Read this excerpt from the selection and one from another source. Which question do these excerpts raise?
Answer: How will competitive figure skaters push the limits when there are no new jumps to master?

Question 4: What do these two excerpts demonstrate about the sport of figure skating?
Answer: the evolving athleticism and risk-taking in the sport

Question 5: n 2010, 19-year-old Mao Asada became the first woman to land two triple Axels in one Olympic performance. What was surprising about this?
Answer: Despite making Olympic history, she still lost the gold medal to her rival Yuna Kim.

Question 6: Select the one sentence in this excerpt that contains a figurative expression.
Answer: “It was a huge, huge loss that cut our sport at the knees,” Fleming said later.

Question 7: Which skater is credited with giving hope to figure skating when a plane crash killed the entire skating team along with their coaches?
Answer: Peggy Fleming

Question 8: The author’s purpose in writing this selection was most likely to?
Answer: present information about notable stories in the sport of competitive figure skating.

Question 9: Read this excerpt from the selection. In the context of this excerpt, the closest synonym for “compulsory” is?
Answer: mandatory.

Question 10: Michelle Kwan, considered by many to be the greatest skater in the world?
Answer: has never won a gold medal at the Olympics.

Helping The Fight For Rights

Question 1: This selection is mainly about Eleanor Roosevelt’s?
Answer: Childhood and early life

Question 2: Read the excerpt. According to this excerpt, which of the following sentences best summarizes Franklin Roosevelt and Eleanor Roosevelt?
Answer: They worked together to protect and fight for human rights.

Question 3: Tone is the attitude of the author or speaker toward a topic. Read this excerpt from the selection. The author’s tone can be best described as?
Answer: Discouraging

Question 4: Choose the sentence from this excerpt that identifies the reason Eleanor’s grandmother sent her to Allenwood School.
Answer: By 1989, grandmother hall decided it was time to see her late daughter’s wishes fulfilled-Eleanor should receive part of her schooling in Europe

Question 5: While attending Allenwood, which two things did Eleanor gain?
Answer: Self-confidence, acceptance

Question 6: Why did Eleanor go to live with her grandmother?
Answer: Her mother passed away and her father could no longer care for her

Question 7: In this sentence, the word “mentor” most closely mean?
Answer: Teacher

Question 8: Read these two excerpts. How did Eleanor’s time at Uncle Ted’s house compare to life at Grandmother’s house?
Answer: Visits with Uncle Ted were less rigid, whereas Grandmother was quite strict

Question 9: Once Eleanor returned to the United States, she was?
Answer: Confident and independent

Question 10: Read this part of the selection. What does this part tell you about Eleanor Roosevelt?
Answer: She did not like the nickname her mother gave her

Michelle Obama’s Early Years-Part 2

Question 1: The central idea of this selection is that Michelle Obama?
Answer: struggled with issues of race and identity in her college years but remained committed to her desire to serve.

Question 2: This selection describes “eating clubs,” the center of the social scene at Princeton. These clubs?
Answer: served a nearly all-white membership.

Question 3: The previous question asked about Princeton’s “eating clubs.” Based on your answer to that question, you can reasonably conclude that?
Answer: students of color may not have felt welcome.

Question 4: How was the Harvard Legal Aid Bureau different from the other organizations Michelle worked with?
Answer: It welcomed multiracial students.

Question 5: Which statement shows that Michelle’s plans after graduation were similar to the Princeton graduates she surveyed?
Answer: She was setting goals for having a high-paying job and achieving financial success.

Question 6: Read this sentence from the selection. In this sentence, the word “grappling” most closely means?
Answer: struggling.

Question 7: In this sentence from the selection, what does the expression “out of her element” show about the way Michelle once felt?
Answer: Finding herself in the minority was uncomfortable.

Question 8: According to the author, Michelle was an excellent basketball player. Which two of the following show why she chose not to play in high school?
Answer 1: She did not want to be stereotyped based on physical attributes.
Answer 2: People would compare her to her brother, who was a star athlete.

Question 9: A senior thesis is a research project some students complete in their last year. Which one of these questions shows the focus of Michelle’s research?
Answer: Do black students who achieve higher levels of education still identify with the African American community?

An Underground Hideout

Question 1: what his story is mainly about?
Answer: a challenging time when residents pulled together to overcome hardships.

Question 2: In what period is this story set?
Answer: near the end of World War II

Question 3: As the story opens, the residents are worried that an airplane is going to?
Answer: bomb the city.

Question 4: How did the schoolchildren determine if an aircraft was a friend or foe?
Answer: by the symbol on the plane’s sides

Question 5: What was the biggest challenge faced by Allied troops in their plan to retake Caen from the Germans?
Answer: how to defeat German troops while minimizing civilian casualties

Question 6: The residents of Caen had only a short time to prepare for their evacuation. During that time they showed?
Answer: courage and determination.

Question 7: If you flew over this building in Caen right before the residents evacuated the city, what would you see on the roof?
Answer: a sheet with a red cross

Question 8: Which sentence indicates the extent of the damage done to Caen?
Answer: The task of recovering and rebuilding their city would take the French people more than 20 years.

Question 9: In this excerpt, the author creates a mood of?
Answer: apprehension.

Question 10: Which words did the author use to create that mood?
Answer: dreaded, huddled, feared

A Crime-Busting Career

Question 1: This story is mainly about?
Answer: Achieving a career goal.

Question 2: What first aroused Tonya’s interest in working for the FBI?
Answer: a crime-solving TV character

Question 3: While planning for a career in the FBI, Tonya showed good judgment in how she conducted herself. Which of the following most supports this statement?
Answer: She avoided drug use without revealing her future plans.

Question 4: How are FBI agents different from state police officers?
Answer: FBI agents investigate crimes in every state.

Question 5: The author admires Tonya for her ability to make smart choices. Which of the following supports the truth of this statement?
Answer: Tonya majored in Mandarin and Arabic, which are hugely valued by the Bureau.

Question 6: What does the word “field” mean in the title of a field agent?
Answer: an active place outside of the community

Question 7: What job did Tonya get at this headquarters in New York City after graduating from college?
Answer: entry-level translator

Question 8: Which of the following shows the theme of persistence?
Answer: Her determination to secure a job at the FBI never wavered.

Question 9: What part does the polygraph test play in this story?
Answer: It confirms Tonya was not lying about her background.

Question 10: What was the most important factor in Tonya’s success as a counterterrorist expert?
Answer: her knowledge of foreign languages

Vampire Bats

Question 1: This selection is mainly about
Answer: creatures who feast on blood and are helpful to humans.

Question 2: In this excerpt, what does the word “severed” mean?
Answer: detached

Question 3: According to the selection, most other bats are different from vampire bats because other bats?
Answer: only fly to their food or prey

Question 4: Tone is an author’s attitude toward a topic. The tone of this excerpt is best described as?
Answer: informative and warning.

Question 5: Think about what you have read. Echolocation is?
Answer: when bats can tell the location of objects by reflecting sound off of them.

Question 6: Leeches can help patients because
Answer: their saliva can stop blood from clotting.

Question 7: To ensure their leeches perform well for patients, Biopharm only feeds the?
Answer: leeches once per year.

Question 8: Which two of the following precautions does Biopharm take when packaging their leeches?
Answer 1: They place the leeches in a special gel.
Answer 2: They store the leeches in cold water.

Question 9: According to his selection, “vampire bats help more humans than they hurt.” Choose the two sentences in this excerpt that support this claim.
Answer 1: Now researchers think a protein in vampire bats’ saliva (or spit) might help these victims. Answer 2: The protein, Desmodus rotundus salivary plasminogen activator (DSPA) keeps blood flowing as the bat laps its prey’s blood.

Question 10: Read this excerpt. In this part, you can infer that the bat’s favorite food is?
Answer: blood.

Stepping Into Politics

Question 1: This selection is mostly about the?
Answer: Constitutional Convention and the activities that led to the approval of the U.S. Constitution.

Question 2: In this part of the selection, the author uses the phrase “heated debates” to characterize discussions about the Constitution as?
Answer: angry and argumentative.

Question 3: Read this excerpt. Which adjectives best describe the overall tone of this excerpt?
Answer: informative and cautious.

Question 4: Which sentence from the selection provides evidence that the delegates went along with Alexander Hamilton’s ideas about a central government?
Answer: The delegates finally compromised and created a new U.S. Constitution.

Question 5: Read this excerpt. Under the name “Publius,” Hamilton, Madison, and Jay wrote a series of essays known as?
Answer: “The Federalist Papers” to Convince people that the Constitution would benefit the country.

Question 6: At the 1787 Constitutional Convention, Hamilton proposed an idea to?
Answer: create a strong national government.

Question 7: Choose the one sentence from this excerpt that most strongly proves Alexander Hamilton achieved his primary goal of a strong central government.
Answer: On March 4, 1789, the Constitution officially took effect.

Question 8: The Articles of Confederation was the first constitution of the United States. For Alexander Hamilton, what was the biggest problem with this document?
Answer: the lack of power in Congress.

Question 9: According to the author, Alexander Hamilton and James Madison agreed on which one of the following?
Answer: the need to collect taxes to fund the nation’s government.

Question 10: James Madison believed that for the government to be effective, the Constitution would need to be endorsed by which two powerful states?
Answer: New York; Virginia.

Olympic Speedskating (A History Of Speed)

Question 1: This selection is mainly about?
Answer: some of the most exciting events in speedskating Olympic history.

Question 2: What event was one outcome of Apollo Anton Ohno’s immense popularity after the 2006 Winter Games?
Answer: An appearance on Dancing with the Stars.

Question 3: What factor is believed to have most motivated Bonnie Blair to achieve her win at the 1994 Olympics?
Answer: being paired with her rival skater from China.

Question 4: Read this excerpt. Why does the author begin with this information?
Answer: to introduce the topic of this text about Olympic speedskaters.

Question 5: The 1994 U.S. Olympic team honored Dan Jansen with the privilege of carrying the American flag during the closing ceremonies. This was most likely because
Answer: he had overcome so much to finally win.

Question 6: Dan Jansen’s gold medal at the Olympics in 1994 was such a surprising victory.
Answer: Knowing the odds of winning were not good.

Question 7: Read this excerpt. The mood in these paragraphs can best be described as a feeling of?
Answer: anticipation.

Question 8: Read this part of the text about Apollo Anton Ohno. The events leading up to Ohno?
Answer: perseverance and passion.

Question 9: What sad fact did Dan Jansen learn before he started the 1988 speedskating competition?
Answer: the death of his sister.

Question 10: Read these two excerpts from the text. Both Dan Jansen and Johann Olav Kossare excellent and well-loved skaters. How are their legacies different?
Answer: Jansen is remembered for sentiment and Koss for generosity
Making an effort to stay healthy.

Question 11: What was…acceptance?
Answer: Physical stature.

Question 12: MRSA is a serious infection because?
Answer: Only special.

Question 13: Choose two sentences.
Answer: After the MRSA scare, since germs.

Question 14: In this selection?
Answer: They are frequently

Question 15: Put these steps…Students were educated
Answer: hand sanitizers

Question 16: Students were made aware?
Answer: Backpacks.

Question 17: According to this selection?
Answer: Cafeteria

Question 18: What evidence?
Answer: The number of student sick days.

Question 19: Why does the author?
Answer: To inject a humorous.

Question 20: MRSA is a serious infection because?
Answer: only special antibiotics are capable of treating it.